In this Western society today, the way of life and marriage are in total contradiction to how the bible says we ought to live. These religious institutions are teaching that the way the Most High setup for man and woman to come together, is called fornication. In their dictionaries, they have redefined the word fornication to mean - a voluntary sexual intercourse between two unmarried persons or two persons not married to each other. So lets examine the scriptures that are in regards to the word fornication, and see if they have the same meaning as these religious institutions are teaching throughout the earth.
Question: What did Jehoram King of Israel do?
2 Chronicles 21:10 - So the Edomites revolted from under the hand of Judah unto this day. The same time also did Libnah revolt from under his hand; because he had forsaken the LORD God of his fathers.
FYI: So Jehoram who was King of Israel at the time, forsook the Most High of his fathers, meaning he left the order in which the Most High had ordained for the people to follow. What was the order? Deuteronomy 6:14 - Ye shall not go after other gods, of the gods of the people which are round about you; So the order was not to go after gods, in which in Exodus 20:3 the Most High said - Thou shalt have no other gods before me.
Question: So how did he forsake the order of the Most High, what was the charge he caused the people to be guilty of?
2 Chronicles 21:11 - Moreover he made high places in the mountains of Judah and caused the inhabitants of Jerusalem to commit fornication, and compelled Judah thereto.
FYI: So Jehoram made places of worship in the mountains, in which these places of worship gave honor and paid homage unto false gods. So this is how he forsook the order in which the Most High ordained, because in Exodus 20:3 the Most High said thou shalt not have no other gods before me, and in Deuteronomy 6:14 it said - Ye shall not go after other gods, of the gods of the people which are round about you; So by him setting up these places of worship to reverence false gods, the people begin to be taught of these other gods and they forsook the Most High as well by worshiping and following other gods, thus this transgression is called fornication. See what you have to understand is that, Jerusalem and Judah were married unto the Most High, so they already had a husband, meaning there was no need for them to sleep around on their husband the Most High. So by them going after false gods, they played the harlot or whore just like a married woman does when she sleeps with a man who is not her husband, so did Jerusalem and Judah do the same.
FYI: Now ask yourself this question, how could fornication mean sex between two unmarried people, if Jerusalem and Judah were married unto the Most High, but yet were charged with committing fornication? So the definition of fornication they are teaching in these religious institutions, are totally incorrect and false. The meaning of fornication here is the act of idolatry, which is shown as the worship of false gods, so this totally contradicts what they are teaching in these religious institutions. Israel had made a covenant with the Most High, as a wife makes vows unto her husband by pledging to spend the rest of her life with him and follow his lead and be with him only. So by them being married unto the Most High, and then turning aside from his lead by whoring after false gods, they broke their wedding vows just as a wife does who sleeps with a man she is not married to, she breaks her vows, same thing done here. So they committed fornication by worshipping false gods, not by being unmarried and sleeping with someone else, so you can put an X on that one.
Question: What did the scripture say Tyre should do?
Isaiah 23:17 - And it shall come to pass after the end of seventy years, that the LORD will visit Tyre, and she shall turn to her hire, and shall commit fornication with all the kingdoms of the world upon the face of the earth.
FYI: The Most High had chastened Tyre, so in this prophecy its stating that after 70 years, he would have mercy upon her but yet Tyre shall still return to her hire in which she was chastened for. Hire means wages of a harlot, so its saying she shall turn back to her trade in which from a trade one makes wages, in which her job was being a prostitute which was how she made a living or earned money, so it was called her hire. So by her doing this, this is how she would commit fornication with all the kingdoms of the world upon the face of the earth. So she would commit fornication by turning to her old wicked practices and for the sake of money would give herself to the lusts of the nations upon the face of the earth, just like a prostitute gives herself to the lusts of men for the sake of wealth or money. So she would trade promiscuously with people of all nations, as harlots entertain all nations of people on corners. So the meaning of fornication shown here is an act of spiritual idolatry, which again destroys the definition of fornication as these religious institutions are teaching.
Question: What did the Most High say Israel would pour out?
Ezekiel 16:15 - But thou didst trust in thine own beauty, and playedst the harlot because of thy renown, and pouredst out thy fornications on every one that passed by; his it was.
FYI: Instead of attributing the glory of her privileges and gifts to the Most High, Israel prided herself on them as her own and then wantonly devoted them to her idols. Lets get a precept that correlates with this - Hosea 2:8 - For she did not know that I gave her corn, and wine, and oil, and multiplied her silver and gold, which they prepared for Baal. So instead of attributing the glory of her beauty unto the Most High, she put confidence and faith in them herself as if she was responsible for her beauty. So because of this and her having fame for her beauty or gifts from the Most High, she acted like a loose woman or harlot or whore because she was widely talked about and famous. So she played the harlot by going a whoring after idols, and because her renown was widely talked about, this brought about or drew idolatrous strangers unto her, who brought their idols with them. So she prostituted herself unto them, every stranger that passed through, she found room for his idol and idolatry, so she wasted her substance with harlotry living.
FYI: So again I put you in remembrance of the fact that, Israel was married unto the Most High. So by her giving herself unto the idols of the other nations and taking in their idolatry, she cheated on her husband the Most High by discovering herself to another who wasn't her husband. So by her doing this with every nation that passed by, is how she enlarged her bed, and when a wife enlarges her bed she sleeps with multiples of men, therefore she creates a covenant with them, just as man a and a woman does when they come together as the Most High ordained. So this is how Israel committed fornication, so how could the definition of fornication according to the bible, mean two people who are not married who have sex, when Israel was married unto the Most High? So this act is of spiritual fornication, so again it destroys the definitions of fornication that's being taught in these religious institutions. The Most High showed this through a parable of an exposed infant rescued from death, educated, espoused, and richly provided for, but after-wards turn aside from their order in which they were formed, and become guilty of breaking his commandment. Verse 26 and 29 of this chapter here in Ezekiel, also talking about idolatry, and have nothing to do with sex between two unmarried people.
FYI: So those were the scriptures in the Old Testament in which the word fornication was used, and as we see it had nothing to do with two unmarried people having sex. So before running off to the New Testament, you need to have a clearer understanding in regards to a man taking a wife. Soon as you bring up the doctrine of fornication, they will immediately take you to this - Matthew 5:32 - But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery. They take you there without ever showing you where its coming from and why, just so they can confuse you, then tell you that your a New Testament Christian now, so you don't have to read the Old Testament, which that demonic lie helps keep the base of their fornication deception established. So upon that precept of Matthew 5:32, know that Christ was re quoting what was written in Moses, so lets go there so you can fully understand what he was talking about.
Question: What does the Old Testament say in regards to a man taking a wife?
Deuteronomy 24:1 - When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favor in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house.
FYI: The Israelites were privy to the practice of divorce, in which many saw the custom enacted in Egypt. So just like then is it now, that if a man finds out his wife ain't the virgin he thought she was before they got married, he is not going to view her the same as he did before. He wants something that he can claim as his own, that no man has had before him, this makes him feel special. So to find out that his woman ain't as innocent as he thought she was, would cause his heart to become heated, filled with envy, anger, and hate. Therefore his behaviour verbally and physically would be according to his emotions at the time, so to prevent him from digging a hole for himself because of his heart being broken, Moses permitted them to give a decree for a legal letter of divorcement, so that they may be loosed from the woman for such a cause, and not bound to stay married to her, because marriage is a lifelong commit till death, and to have to stay with such a woman, that man would beat her and then some. So divorce was accompanied under the law with two conditions, in which the act of divorcement was to be certified on a written document, so that the preparation of which, with legal formality, would allow time for reflection and repentance, and the other condition was that in the event of the divorced wife being married to another husband, she could not, on the termination of that second marriage, be restored to her first husband, however desirous he might be to receive her. So now lets go back to the New Testament and see how this lines up exactly with what Christ was talking about.
Question: What did Christ say?
Matthew 5:31 - It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement:
FYI: We just read where it had been said at, which was in Moses back in Deuteronomy the 24th Chapter, where the only legitimate grounds for divorce was due to marital unfaithfulness. The Pharisees were allowing them to put away their wives for any cause under any pretext, Christ comes and restores understanding on marriage, which first he re-quotes Moses to them.
Question: Then what did Christ say?
Matthew 5:32 - But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
FYI: So you see here, Christ forbids the allowed practice of the Pharisees which was divorce for any cause, by restating what was written in Moses, which the only grounds for divorce was due to marital unfaithfulness. So he first put them into remembrance of what was written in Moses, then says except the divorce be for the grounds of marital unfaithfulness, you cause the woman to commit adultery, which she does by remarrying again cause she wasn't put away for the reason in which divorce was allowed, which was for marital unfaithfulness. So whoever would come along and marry her, would be in adultery, cause she is still the wife of him that unlawfully put her away, so that would make the man coveting after his neighbors property, which is adultery. So if the woman was married, and she slept with someone else not her husband, then how could the act be considered fornication if fornication is sex between two unmarried people? So as you see this busts up the teaching of fornication meaning sex between two unmarried people. If a man and woman were betrothed to be married, they already bear the titles of husband and wife, despite not having sex yet to consummate the marriage in blood, which would seal the covenant.
FYI: So during the time of engagement the man and woman would be separated until the time of the marriage ceremony, therefore if during that time the woman to be had sex with a man she was not engaged to be with, would put them in violation of the law, which was written that - Deuteronomy 22:23-24 - If a damsel that is a virgin be betrothed unto an husband, and a man find her in the city, and lie with her; Then ye shall bring them both out unto the gate of that city, and ye shall stone them with stones that they die; the damsel, because she cried not, being in the city; and the man, because he hath humbled his neighbour's wife: so thou shalt put away evil from among you. So the grace that comes in here, is being labeled in adultery, thus giving you the chance to get it right and repent and change your ways, as where according to the law, one was to be put to death. This is the grace Christ blood brought along on this issue, so when its talking about saving for the cause of fornication, that's during the time of the man and woman being engaged to be married, cause once two people are married, and they go astray from their spouse, they commit adultery. So they can't use this precept no more, lets proceed a little further.
Question: What did Christ say proceeds out of the heart?
Matthew 15:19 - For out of the heart proceed evil thoughts, murders, adulteries, fornications, thefts, false witness, blasphemies:
FYI: The word used as adulteries here in this precept, is "moicheia" which is 3430 in the Strong's Concordance, which it means - adultery, From moicheuo; adultery -- adultery. So this separates it from being the same thing as the word fornication used in this precept, cause nowhere in its definition do you see the word fornication. Now the word fornications used here in this precept, is "porneia", which is 4202 in the Lexicon Strong's Concordance, which it means -
1) illicit sexual intercourse
a) adultery, fornication, homosexuality, lesbianism, intercourse with animals etc.
b) sexual intercourse with close relatives; Lev. 18
c) sexual intercourse with a divorced man or woman; Mk. 10:11,12
2) metaph. the worship of idols
a) of the defilement of idolatry, as incurred by eating the sacrifices offered to idols
FYI: Illicit is when something is contrary to or forbidden by law, in which sexual intercourse with a family member, or animal, or one of the same sex, or another man's wife. So as you see once again, this has nothing to do with sex between two unmarried people, but rather has everything to do with all that was named and idolatry as we learned from the Old Testament.
Question: What else did Christ tell them?
John 8:41 - Ye do the deeds of your father. Then said they to him, We be not born of fornication; we have one Father, even God.
FYI: So Christ is pointing out that they are imitating their real father, which is someone other than who they are claiming to be as their father. Which you see this in everyday relationships, where a woman and man are together, and the kids claim the man their mother with as being their father, and the woman tells them that they are acting like their daddy, she is pointing out that their behaviour is imitating their real father who they are from, and not the one who is present that they call father. So by saying we be not born of fornication, is them signifying that they have one father as allowed, thus saying they were descendants from the Most High's chosen Abraham, and were not pretending to be the Most High's people. So this context of the word fornication, is showing that when your not in a biological marriage union, then you have more than one father, the man who you claim that is present as being your father, and the man who you act like that is your real father. So again, you see this fornication has nothing to do with sex between two unmarried people. So lets go and get the other precepts they use to support their doctrine.
Question: What did the Apostle Paul say the body was not for?
1 Corinthians 6:13 - Meats for the belly, and the belly for meats: but God shall destroy both it and them. Now the body is not for fornication, but for the Lord; and the Lord for the body.
FYI: Here the Corinthians had characterized things that were indifferent into being as one, with things that were natural and lawful desires, such as claiming all things were lawful for them now that they have liberty under Christ, which you see this mindset throughout religion today, so the Apostle Paul clears up their confusion. He informs them that foods, were made for the necessary nourishment of man's life, which is not forever, thus showing that foods and the organs that receive them, are not forever and will eventually return to dust, so they are permitted for the time being. As where fornication, is not permitted seeing as how the body was made for the service of the Most High, ordained to purity and holiness. So the body is consecrated unto him, even as Christ also is given us by the Most High to make lively our bodies with the Spirit of the Most High, which is the power that he also rose again by. So by Christ being the Saviour of the body, and the Spirit that raised him from the dead be found within us, shall also raise our natural body to be awarded a spiritual body. Now the word fornication used here in this precept, is "porneia", which is 4202 in the Lexicon Strong's Concordance, which it means -
1) illicit sexual intercourse
a) adultery, fornication, homosexuality, lesbianism, intercourse with animals etc.
b) sexual intercourse with close relatives; Lev. 18
c) sexual intercourse with a divorced man or woman; Mk. 10:11,12
2) metaph. the worship of idols
a) of the defilement of idolatry, as incurred by eating the sacrifices offered to idols
FYI: Illicit is when something is contrary to or forbidden by law, such as sexual intercourse with a family member, or animal, or one of the same sex, or another man's wife. So as you see once again, this has nothing to do with sex between two unmarried people, but rather has everything to do with all that was named above and idolatry as we learned from examining the Old Testament. So the word fornication used in this precept, is speaking of uncleanness, such as the same things we read up above and again read here. So now you should begin to wonder if there was an agenda behind the word fornication being added to the dictionary as meaning sex between two unmarried people, in which it was and I'll show you that in a minute. But lets continue on bringing forth a clearer understanding of the precepts they try to use for their doctrine.
Question: What else did the Apostle Paul say in regards to fornication?
1 Corinthians 6:18 - Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body.
FYI: Fornication separates one from being in union with the body of Christ by way of the Spirit, and unites one with a harlot. The body is a member of Christ, serving as the temple of the Most High, it is not meant to be defiled in unholy purposes. When you commit fornication, you pollute, dishonor, corrupt and degrade and lower your body to that of a whore, thus alienating that body which is the Most High's, and making it one with a harlot's body. Doing so, you sinneth against the verity and nature of your body, so this form of temptation is something you must conquer and mentally subdue, and keep yourself away from all that which might cause you to commit this crime. The word fornication used here in this precept is "porneuō", which is 4203 in the Lexicon Strong's Concordance, which it means -
1) to prostitute one's body to the lust of another
2) to give one's self to unlawful sexual intercourse
a) to commit fornication
3) metaph. to be given to idolatry, to worship idols
a) to permit one's self to be drawn away by another into idolatry
FYI: Isn't that amazing, how nowhere in the definition does it say - voluntary sex between two unmarried people? In the law it stated - Leviticus 19:29 - Do not prostitute thy daughter, to cause her to be a whore; lest the land fall to whoredom, and the land become full of wickedness. So to prostitute one's daughter, you would have to prostitute her body to the lust of another, which is the definition you read here of fornication. This was a custom of the Gentiles, in which they did this for the honor of some of their idols, in which they would consecrate women, and then publicly prostitute them for money. In which this is what a woman does when she goes out on a date with a man she is not married to. By that I mean, she gets all dressed up in whore make up like Jezebel and other whores of the bible did, and she goes out with a man to dinner, comes home or to a motel or just in the car, and have sex with him. She just prostituted herself for the expense of the date, thus making her a cheap whore. Unlawful sexual intercourse we read about up above, such as sex with animals, sex with a family member, sex with close relatives such as your distant, sex with one of the same sex, or another man's wife, or another woman's husband, this is how you commit fornication. Having those pictures of black Jesus and white Jesus and the fish symbol and the lion claiming it to be of the tribe of Judah, and the dove pictures and sheep and anything else claimed to be of heavenly significance, makes you given to idolatry, which is also part of the definition of fornication. Amazing, how nowhere in the definition does it say voluntary sex between two unmarried people, which means these religious institutions have deceived you.
Question: What else did the Apostle Paul say?
1 Corinthians 7:2 - Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.
FYI: Pause, lets get a precept for this as to why - 2 Samuel 11:2 - And it came to pass in an eveningtide, that David arose from off his bed, and walked upon the roof of the king's house: and from the roof he saw a woman washing herself; and the woman was very beautiful to look upon. This is how come in Job 31:1 it talks about having made a covenant with your eyes, so that you couldn't gaze upon a virgin, cause doing so would ignite a spark within your heart to desire that which is not yours. In the case of David, his charge wasn't because he had multiple wives, but rather because he looked upon a married woman and had sex with her, which is considered the act of adultery in the New Testament. So in order for a man to avoid from lusting after another man's wife, or a woman from lusting after another woman's husband, be it that they are single as the Apostle Paul was, he suggested that they have "THEIR OWN" husband and wife. Keywords missed in that precept, is "THEIR OWN", which shows you that if they didn't have their own, then who else could they be lusting after? Somebody else property, which would be breaking commandment, which is why Christ said - Matthew 5:28 - But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.
FYI: Now the word fornications used here in this precept, is "porneia", which is 4202 in the Lexicon Strong's Concordance, which it means -
1) illicit sexual intercourse
a) adultery, fornication, homosexuality, lesbianism, intercourse with animals etc.
b) sexual intercourse with close relatives; Lev. 18
c) sexual intercourse with a divorced man or woman; Mk. 10:11,12
2) metaph. the worship of idols
a) of the defilement of idolatry, as incurred by eating the sacrifices offered to idols
FYI: Illicit is when something is contrary to or forbidden by law, in which sexual intercourse with a family member, or animal, or one of the same sex, or another man's wife. So the fornication that would be committed in this verse, is lusting after another man's wife or woman's husband. So as you see once again, this has nothing to do with sex between two unmarried people, but rather has everything to do with all that was named and idolatry as we learned from the Old Testament. Amazing how the Old Testament and New Testament are in agreement with each other, but yet not in agreement with the doctrine the religious institutions are teaching. A man thats not married and sleeps around with women not married, is a whoremonger, and a woman who sleeps around is a whore, simple and plain, but they redefined the definition of fornication in English dictionaries, to compensate for their condemnation of a black man sleeping with a white woman.
In order to understand the inception of this belief and definition, you must research the history of marriage in the United States of America. The Christian Black Codes of 1724, were initiated during reconstruction after the Civil war to control blacks after they were emancipated. Passed by Southern States, instead of giving blacks the same rights as white people, the codes limited the blacks freedom severely. They included that blacks had to be in service of a white person, that they could not have congregations together, that they could not speak out, and that they could not have weapons. They also included that blacks could not go out without a white 'supervisor', thus blacks had to take on the religions and holidays and gods of their white superiors. These same black codes were said to have been made null and void with the ratification of the 13th Amendment in 1865, although many southern states adopted "Black Codes" to keep former slaves from voting and imposed other restrictions. The 14th and 15th Amendments were to supposedly had eliminated these codes, but as you'll see them on my website, and study the law of the land in conjuction with Religion and Politics, you'll discover these codes have been modernized in a disguise, and many are still in affect. Lets read one of the codes below:
The “Christian” BLACK Codes of 1724
Article 6 of the Christian Black Codes of 1724
We forbid our “White” Subjects (of both sexes) to marry with “The BLACKS” under penalty of being fined and subjected to some other arbitrary punishment. We forbid all curates, priests, or missionaries of our secular or regular clergy, and even our chaplains in our Navy, to section (sanction) such marriages. We also forbid all of our “White” Subjects (and even the manumitted or free-born “Blacks”) to live in a state of concubinage with slaves. Should there be any issue from this kind of intercourse, it is our will that the person so offending, and the master of the Slave should pay each a fine of three hundred livres. Should said issue be the result of concubinage of the master his slave, said master shall not only pay the fine, but be deprived of the slave and of the children, who shall be adjudged to the hospital of the locality, and said slave shall be forever incapable of being set free. But shall this illicit intercourse have existed between a free Black and his slave, when said slave according to the forms described by the church, said slave shall become free and legitimate; and in such case there shall be no application of the penalties mentioned in the present article.
FYI: Miscegenation laws, were laws that banned interracial marriage and sometimes interracial sex between whites and blacks. In the United States, interracial marriage, cohabitation and sex have since 1863 been termed as "miscegenation. In North America, laws against interracial marriage and interracial sex existed and were enforced in the Thirteen Colonies from the late seventeenth century onwards, and subsequently in several US states and US territories until 1967. In the United States, miscegenation laws were state laws passed by individual states to prohibit miscegenation, nowadays more commonly referred to as interracial marriage and interracial sex. Typically defining miscegenation as a felony, yes, felony, and these laws prohibited the solemnization of weddings between persons of different races and prohibited the officiating of such ceremonies. The word fornication in the year of 1303, was defined as a sexual act committed with a prostitute, which you saw that as the meaning from examining the Old Testament and New Testament up above. The Latin word fornix, from which fornicātiō, the ancestor of fornication, is derived, meant "a vault, an arch, it was referred to a vaulted cellar or similar place where prostitutes plied their trade, thus making it in reference to a sexual act committed with a prostitute, in which the bible refers to as a harlot, in which a harlot is a woman who engages in sexual intercourse for money, such an act was called fornication, and never meant sex between two unmarried people.
FYI: So upon the States knowing that blacks and whites would still be tempted to marry, instead of sticking them with just a felony charge, they redefined the definition of fornication, and begin using it when blacks and whites desired to marry one another, or have sex with each other, thus therefore making a lawful act, linked with a unlawful biblical act of prostitution, by forging the meaning of it as being sex between two unmarried people. Therefore, the Roman Catholic Church could bring
condemnation upon two people living together and coming together as a sin, and illegal. So this gave them the power to murder off blacks and later on other ethnic races. So with the majority of states being racist states and being owners of slaves, this word fornication was then instituted into dictionaries, thus giving it the meaning or definition as - "a sexual act when occurring outside of a marriage, such as any person who had sex without being married by the Roman Catholic Church. So through hiding behind Christ, this racist idiotic doctrine was brought into practice, and with the new definition of the word fornication being instituted, as sex between two unmarried people, it now gave the states a cover, to continue racism by bringing those of different races into court to be tried, for committing a felony act of fornication, thus labeling them as fornicators.
FYI: So by working deceitfully, they made a lawful biblical act of a man and woman coming together through sex thus consummating marriage, illegal politically and a sin spiritually. Therefore they accomplished bringing condemnation upon two people coming together outside of their jurisdiction, thus using the Church to push this doctrine of deception of the word fornication meaning sex between two people who aren't married according to the State ways or the Catholic Church. Let me show you another Christian Black Code of 1724 that shows this power, and you'll see its still in effect today just modernized it.
Article 7 of the Christian Black Codes of 1724
The ceremonies and forms prescribed by the ordinance of blois and by the edict of 1691, for marriage, shall be observed both with regard to free persons and slaves. But the consent of the father and mother of the slave is not necessary; that of the master shall be the only one required.
FYI: As you read in the bible, the consent of the parents was tradition and custom, but after the initiation of the Christian black codes, slaves no longer had to follow the biblical tradition of marriage, but rather that of their masters. We see this to be evident today with not only blacks, but people in general, because they have to go before the State to be granted permission to marry, the State is the Master over their marriages.
Article 8 of the Christian Black Codes of 1724
We forbid all curates to process to effect marriages between slaves without the proof of the consent of their master; and we also forbid all masters to force their slaves into marriages against their wills.
FYI: Curate is a person authorized to conduct religious worship, back then he would have also been referred to as a assistant rector or vicar. In the Roman Catholic Church and some other churches, a curate was a cleric who was acting as local representative of a higher ranking member of the clergy. Modern day tense, this would be your pastors in which many of them have not been ordained by the Most High, but rather have been authorized or licensed by the State to act as a representative of the State, but appearing as a man of the Most High God before you. Still we see this code in affect, because many will not marry people in general, without them having a marriage license from the Master who is now the State. So they hid their doing of redefining the word fornication, but kept with the authority of marriage not only over blacks, but now over all people by not considering them to be married, unless they apply for State marriage license and wait for the State to approve them. So guess what do they call you if you don't marry as the Roman Catholic Church instituted, they call you a fornicator and say you are shaking up, despite not being able to provide one scripture that says two people living together is a sin.
Shacking Up
1878, Amer.Eng. and Canadian Eng., of unknown origin, perhaps from Mex.Sp. jacal, from Nahuatl xacalli "wooden hut." Or perhaps a back-formation from dial. Eng. shackly "shaky, rickety" (1843), a derivative of shack, a dial. variant of shake (q.v.). Another theory derives shack from ramshackle. Slang verb phrase shack up "cohabit" first recorded 1935 (in Zora Neale Hurston).
FYI: So the phrase shack up was first recorded in 1935 by Zora Neale Hurston, before then and back in earlier bible days, such a phrase never existed. So how can they tell you that shacking up is against the bible, seeing as how it was never in existence as a spiritual belief given by the Most High through holy men, when they were writing what is composed of today as the bible? This is how come the phrase doesn't exist in the bible, there is no such teaching as two people living together as being shacking up. When there was not enough room for the slaves to all have their own shack, some of them had to start living all under the same roof, males, females, and children, thus did she label such a rooming as "shack up". It had nothing to do with two unmarried people living together, nor two unmarried people living together having sex, you've been deceived. Also you need to examine what is called the Edmond's Act, and you'll see through it were they able to not only use it to condemn two people living together unmarried, but rather to make Polygamy a felony. In brief, the Edmunds Act, also known as the Edmonds Anti-Polygamy Act of 1882, is a United States federal statute, signed into law on March 23, 1882, declaring polygamy a felony. The act is named after U.S. Senator George F. Edmunds of Vermont, in which The Edmunds Act also prohibited "bigamous" or "unlawful cohabitation", as being a misdemeanor, in which polygamy was considered immoral and often compared to slavery. Still to this day, you see Polygamy as being shunned by the masses of American religious institutions, and see the people being taken off their land, and tried in court and have their kids and wives separated from them. This is legal slavery folks, they modernized it and focused their institutions to teach egotism and selfishness, rather than loving selflessly like Abraham and Jacob and many others.
FYI: See what most people fail to understand is that, in the 4th century in 364AD, the Roman Council of Laodicea decided the doctrine of the Christian church and the contents of the Bible. It was not until the Council of Trent in 1563 that the Roman Catholic Church made it mandatory for a marriage, to be performed in a church by a priest (preacher), in the presence of two or three witnesses. After the French Revolution, the new Constitution made civil marriage mandatory in 1791 thus now the State gets to regulate and make a profit off of the union of marriage. Today marriage is governed by civil law and ecclesiastical canon law, in which they have it setup as to where no one can escape the laws of the State. Which is why the State or Church doesn't recognize the people as being married, unless they have a State contract known as a marriage license, which that brings the State money. So if you not bringing them no money, they don't recognize you and your partner as being married, cause you didn't follow their order, thus giving you and your partner the label of being fornicators and shaking up. When the government needed finances, some states began allowing interracial marriages or miscegenation as long as those marrying received a license from the state.
So in other words, they had to receive permission to do an act which without such permission would have been illegal. Remember, in Black's Law Dictionary it points to this historical fact when it defines "marriage license" as, "A license or permission granted by public authority to persons who intend to intermarry." "Intermarry" is defined in Black’s Law Dictionary as, "Miscegenation; mixed or interracial marriages." Not long after these licenses were issued, some states began requiring all people who marry to obtain a marriage license, seeing that they could make a profit off of the Union of Marriage. So in 1923, the Federal Government established the Uniform Marriage and Marriage License Act (they later established the Uniform Marriage and Divorce Act). By 1929, every state in the Union had adopted marriage license laws, and by 1935, all states required licenses except Maryland, which soon followed shortly thereafter. When a couple applies for a license from the State to marry, they are actually asking for permission to engage in the “unlawful” activity of marriage (License - a revocable permission to commit some act that would otherwise be unlawful - Black’s Law 7th ed). Why, because the State can regulate that which it licenses, by entering into a State-sanctioned franchise (marriage) as a married couple, a couple forfeits their rights to a private, sovereign marriage and any ownership control of their children or property; as a result of the marriage license.
Child Protective Services receives its full power and authority to seize children via the marriage license under the ancient legal doctrine of parens patriae. When a State-licensed married couple has a child, the Birth Certificate is the document the State uses to claim ownership of the child under its marriage contract. State ownership remains as long as that child lives, even after the age of 21. If you have a birth certificate, the State owns you too. Couples married under a state-sanctioned marriage license also give up 1/3 of their property to the state. Should one person die, the government, through the inheritance tax, will demand the surviving party to “buy them out” - usually a 28- 35% tax. Even though weddings are conducted in a church setting with a providential backdrop, when a couple acquires a marriage license to marry, almost all preachers who marry a couple who has marriage licenses, marry them by the authority vested in them by the State, not by the Most High as they loudly and lyingly proclaim. In 1923, the Supreme Court defined liberty as, among other things, “...the ability to freely marry, establish a home, and bring up children. Today, we need a license to do those “unlawful” acts. After all, that which the state licenses it can thereby regulate. The license is then converted into a certificate after the marriage takes place. Barron’s Banking Dictionary defines a certificate as - “a paper establishing an ownership claim.” -Barron’s Dictionary of Banking Terms, ©1990, Barron’s Educational Series, Inc. p. 114.
One of the main reasons the marriage certificate changed its character was the fact that the Panic of 1907 had just taken place and Senator Nelson Aldrich had been appointed to head the National Monetary Commission to ensure such panics never took place again. Senator Aldrich’s plan was ultimately realized in the Federal Reserve System of debt-based money that Americans suffer under today. Because the money system proposed was debt-based, the state and federal governments needed to have certificated property that produced wealth that they could pledge as collateral for notes in the upcoming debt money system. In 1903 only a few states had adopted a marriage license scheme, yes scheme because that is what it is used for today. As I stated in a status once before, that six pointed star technically, is just another symbol of Saturn, which amazingly is the only planet with rings around it, thus do you find halos which are circle ring shaped, around your Jesus pictures and Saint pictures. The Romans worshipped Saturn as one of their gods, Saturnalia was one of their main festivals which today, its disguised as Christmas.
You worship Saturn as God just as they did, prime example, Saturn is the only planet with a ring around it. Why do you think when you get married, you must put a RING around your spouse finger just to get married before GOD? Didn't know that did you? Why you think they instituted going before a Deputy as means for getting married? They didn't tell you that the symbol of the God Saturn, is the ring, which amazingly is what the people put on each other fingers, despite nowhere in the bible the TRUE GOD of Israel whom you are suppose to be worshipping, ever required you to do so in order to get married. So when you get married, you get married with a ring and the symbol of that God is the ring, the ring of Saturn, so you're really wearing God's ring, and that God is Saturn whom the Romans also worshipped. So again folks, you have been deceived to the highest degree, fornication does not mean sex between two unmarried people, wake up before its too late, shalom!